PHARM103 mid term (Graded) Question # 00598525 Subject: Education Due on: 02/25/2019 Posted On: 02/25/2019 04:40 AM Tutorials: 1 Rating: 5.0/5

Question 1

Select the number of
drops per minute to be administered for a 1200-ml IV given over 5 hours using
an administration set labeled 10 drops per ml.

Select one:

a. 400 drops/min

b. 240 drops/min

c. 40 drops/min

d. 4 drops/min

Question 2

Which of the following statements is true of cobalamin
(vitamin B12)?

Select one:

a. Cobalamin is
primarily found is green vegetables and fruits.

b. Strict vegetarians
are more likely to develop a deficiency of cobalamin.

c. The anemia
resulting from cobalamin deficiency is a microcytic hypochromic anemia.

d. Cobalamin has
recognized therapeutic value in the treatment of hepatitis, allergies, and
sterility.

Question 3

Gastric juices mainly consist of _____.

Select one:

a. HCl and gastrin

b. HCl and
pepsin

c. sodium bicarbonate
and gastrin

d. sodium bicarbonate
and pepsin

Question 4

A patient with peptic ulcer complains of severe duodenal
pain. Which of the following treatment options is most likely to relieve this
pain?

Select one:

a. Administration of
food

b. Administration of
histamine H1-receptor antagonists

c. Administration of
calcium channel blockers

d. Administration of
cholinergic drugs

Question 5

Identify the primary mechanism of action of digoxin.

Select one:

a. Release of nitric
oxide

b. Blockade of
angiotensin receptors

c. Blockade or
norepinephrine receptors

d. Increase of
myocardial contraction

Question 6

Identify the type of depression in which there is a period
of shock followed by a period of readjustment and resolve that life must go on.

Select one:

a. Exogenous
depression

b. Mania

c. Major depressive
disorder

d. None of the above

Question 7

The activation of the parasympathetic division will not
directly reduce:

Select one:

a. gastrointestinal
motility.

b. blood
pressure.

c. urinary motility.

d. skeletal muscle
contraction.

Question 8

Nicotine gum (Nicorette) has been classified as _____ by the
FDA.

Select one:

a. Pregnancy Category
A

b. Pregnancy Category
B

c. Pregnancy Category
C

d. Pregnancy Category
D

Question 9

Ectopic foci are often caused due to:

Select one:

a. an increase in the
activity of the sinoatrial (SA) node.

b. an increase in the
activity of the atrioventricular (AV) node.

c. a delay or
blockage in the conduction of electrical impulses.

d. a decrease in the
number of cholinergic neurons innervating the heart.

Question 10

Which of the following statements is true of the use of
droperidol?

Select one:

a. It produces the
best antiemetic effect when it is administered at the start of a surgical
procedure.

b. Its use has
declined since its association with respiratory problems.

c. It is not
administered to patients predisposed to developing cardiac arrhythmia

d. None of these are

Question 11

What will be the effect of taking two aspirin tablets
instead of one?

Select one:

a. The analgesic
effect of the drug will decrease.

b. The analgesic
effect of the drug will increase.

c. There will be no
change in the analgesic effect of the drug.

d. The drug will
result in adverse toxic effects.

Question 12

Identify the term that refers to the liquid portion of a
solution that is capable of dissolving another substance.

Select one:

a. Solute

b. Plasma

c. Solvent

d. None of these

Question 13

Which of the following is true of treating iron deficiency?

Select one:

a. Anemia caused by a
nutritional lack of iron cannot be treated with oral iron supplements.

b. Vitamin C should
not be used in combination with iron supplements in the treatment of iron
deficiency as it reduces the intestinal absorption of iron.

c. Iron dextran
(INFeD) can be used to treat iron deficiency in patients who have impaired
gastrointestinal absorption.

d. Long-term
iron-deficient patients should be treated with 20 to 50 mg of iron per day for
at least 6 months.

Question 14

Select the nitrate drug that is used prophylactically to
prevent the occurrence of anginal attacks.

Select one:

a. Nitroglycerin
sublingual pump

b. Nitroglycerin for
IV infusion

c. Sublingual
nitroglycerin

d. Nitroglycerin
extended-release capsules

Question 15

Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed by the intravenous injection
of:

Select one:

a. edrophonium.

b. neostigmine.

c. pyridostigmine.

d. ambenonium.

Question 16

One way to improve compliance for a patient with arthritis
would be to:

Select one:

a. encourage the
patient to take medication on an empty stomach.

b. suggest not using
child safety caps on medication bottles.

c. encourage the
patient to read medication information literature.

d. allow the patient
to identify the drugs he requires on his own.

Question 17

The pituitary gland is attached to the _____.

Select one:

a. thalamus

b. hypothalamus

c. pons

d. cerebellum

Question 18

Pain resulting from abnormal signals or nerves damaged by
entrapment, amputation, or diabetes is known as _____.

Select one:

a. hyperalgesia

b. dysphoria

c. referred pain

d. neuropathic
pain

Question 19

Orion laboratories, a pharmaceutical manufacturing company,
manufactures the drug cetirizine and markets the tablets under the name
“Alzer.” In this case, cetirizine is the _____ name of the drug.

Select one:

a. proprietary

b. generic

c. trade

d. brand

Question 20

Among the factors that affect drug distribution, the factor
that plays the biggest role in determining the concentration of a drug that
penetrates the brain by overcoming the blood–brain barrier is:

Select one:

a. lipid
solubility.

b. blood circulation.

c. plasma protein
binding.

d. GI absorption
rate.

Question 21

Which of the following statements is true of the vasodilator
drug diazoxide?

Select one:

a. Structurally,
diazoxide is similar to the thiazide diuretics.

b. Diazoxide is a
very potent vasodilator and has significant diuretic activity.

c. Its hypotensive
effects last for 1 to 2 hours.

d. Diazoxide is used
when the BP needs to be lowered gradually.

Question 22

Select the group of drug agents that are listed in
increasing order of their duration of action.

Select one:

a. Albuterol
(Proventil), Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair), Tiotropium (Spiriva)

b.
Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair), Albuterol (Proventil), Tiotropium
(Spiriva)

c. Albuterol
(Proventil), Tiotropium (Spiriva), Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair)

d. Tiotropium
(Spiriva), Albuterol (Proventil), Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair)

Question 23

Identify the role that the autonomic nervous system plays in
the development of asthma.

Select one:

a. Parasympathetic
stimulation by epinephrine (beta-2 receptor) produces the bronchodilation that
is characteristic of asthma.

b. Parasympathetic
activation through the release of acetylcholine produces bronchoconstriction
and increased secretion of mucus.

c. Sympathetic
activation through the release of acetylcholine produces bronchoconstriction
and increased secretion of mucus.

d. Sympathetic
activation through the release of epinephrine produces bronchoconstriction and
increased secretion of mucus.

.

Question 24

Omeprazole works by _____.

Select one:

a. inhibiting a
hydrogen–potassium pump in mucosal cells

b. inhibiting a
sodium–potassium pump in mucosal cells

c. inhibiting a
hydrogen–potassium pump in parietal cells

d. inhibiting a
sodium–potassium pump in parietal cells

Question 25

Which of the following combinations of diseases increases
the risk for limb amputation?

Select one:

a.
Hypercholesterolemia and hypertension

b.
Hypercholesterolemia and hemophilia

c.
Hypercholesterolemia and anemia

d.
Hypercholesterolemia and diabetes

Question 26

Differentiate between tolerance, antagonism, and synergism
in order to select the drug interaction that occurs during antagonism.

Select one:

a. The combined
effect of two drugs, by the same mechanism of action, is equal to the sum of
their individual effects.

b. The combined
effect of two drugs, by different mechanisms of action, is equal to the sum of
their individual effects.

c. The combined
effect of two drugs is less than the sum of their individual effects.

d. The combined
effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects.

Question 27

How does anxiety affect the human body?

Select one:

a. It enhances the
activity of the parasympathetic nervous system.

b. It deactivates the
reticular activating system.

c. It triggers the
hyperarousal of the cerebral cortex.

d. It decreases the
activity of the limbic system.

Question 28

Why do some patients develop nausea and vomiting after
taking aspirin?

Select one:

a. Salicylates
stimulate the microsomal metabolizing system in the liver, resulting in an
increase in the amount of acid produced in the GI tract.

b. Salicylates
stimulate the mucopolysaccharides in the stomach causing hydrochloric acid
erosion that leads to nausea and vomiting.

c. Salicylates
stimulate the medullary center known as the chemoreceptor trigger zone that
directly excites the vomiting center so that emesis may occur.

d. None of the above
are .

Question 29

Ella has been taking large doses of a particular
neuromuscular blocker over a very long period of time. Consequently, she has
developed signs of respiratory paralysis and has severe trouble breathing.
After Dr. Kurt examines her, he concludes that Ella’s deteriorating health is
the result of the growing concentration of the neuromuscular blocker drug in
her system. He prescribes the drug neostigmine to relieve her symptoms. How
will the drug neostigmine help counteract the effects of the neuromuscular
blocker drug?

Select one:

a. It will inhibit
the enzyme acetylcholinesterase so that acetylcholine (ACH) accumulates within
the synaptic junctions.

b. It will attach
itself to the synaptic vesicles containing ACH and prevent ACH from being
released into the synaptic cleft.

c. It will damage the
nicotinic-muscle receptors, thereby altering the ability of these receptors to
become stimulated.

d. It will enhance
the activity of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase so that the concentration of
ACH in the synaptic cleft decreases.

Question 30

Identify the major pharmacokinetic differences that exist
between the drug effects of nonselective beta-blockers and selective beta-1
blockers that can alter their therapeutic responses.

Select one:

a. Duration of action
and extent of drug metabolism

b. Onset of action
and extent of drug metabolism

c. Duration of action
and extent of drug excretion

d. Onset of action
and extent of drug absorption

Question 31

Select the stage of the sleep cycle that corresponds with
the ability to dream.

Select one:

a. NREM stage 1

b. REM

c. NREM stage 2

d. None of the above

Question 32

Which of the following factors can affect drug metabolism by
reducing the efficiency with which organs function?

Select one:

a. Genetics

b. Nutritional
deficiency

c. Disease

d. All of these

Question 33

In the context of the factors of individual variation that
alter the effect of a drug, select the statement that best describes the placebo
effect.

Select one:

a. Excitement can
lead to perceived symptom improvement.

b. Positive attitude
can lead to perceived symptom improvement.

c. Less body fat can
lead to perceived symptom improvement.

d. None of the above
statements are .

Question 34

Which of the following terms is used to describe chest pain
caused by insufficient blood flow to the heart?

Select one:

a. Angina
pectoris

b. Hypertension

c. Arrhythmia

d. Tachycardia

Question 35

Alex is suffering from Parkinson’s disease and is undergoing
drug therapy. In spite of taking his medications regularly, Alex has started
experiencing alternating periods of mobility and immobility. When he informs
his doctor of these episodes, his doctor tells him that he’s experiencing a
phenomenon that is known as the “on-off phenomenon.” What will Alex’s
doctor instruct him to do?

Select one:

a. He will tell Alex
to take his drug doses around meal times.

b. He will tell Alex
to take smaller doses of the drug at more frequent intervals.

c. He will tell Alex
to take protein supplements along with the medication.

d. He will increase
Alex’s dosage.

Question 36

The enzymes that are most affected by the process of aging
are those that play a role in _____ drugs.

Select one:

a. oxidizing

b. reducing

c. chelating

d. alkylating

Question 37

Identify the clinical indication for the use of
benzodiazepines.

Select one:

a. Reduction of
anxiety

b. Increase in mental
alertness

c. Increase in desire
for physical activity

d. Decrease in
drowsiness

Question 38

How do thiazides and loop diuretics differ in their
mechanisms of action?

Select one:

a. They have
different outcomes in the context of sodium retention.

b. They act at
different sites in the kidney.

c. Thiazides are more
potent than loop diuretics.

d. Thiazides cause
hypokalemia, while loop diuretics cause hyperkalemia.

Question 39

_____ is a protein normally produced by the kidneys that
participates in red blood cell homeostasis.

Select one:

a. Intrinsic factor

b.
Erythropoietin

c. Transcobalamin II

d. Transferrin

Question 40

In terms of patient safety and ease of drug administration,
identify the most convenient route of drug administration for a patient with a
busy lifestyle and a hectic schedule.

Select one:

a. Intramuscular
administration

b. Oral
administration

c. Topical
administration

d. Intravenous
administration

Question 41

Two naturally occurring opiates derived from the poppy plant
are:

Select one:

a. morphine and
heroin.

b. morphine and
codeine.

c. codeine and
heroin.

d. codeine and
marijuana.

Question 42

Identify the most commonly used local anesthetic technique.

Select one:

a. Regional nerve
block

b. Infiltration
anesthesia

c. Topical
application

d. Cryoanesthesia

Question 43

What unexpected adverse effect can elderly patients
experience when taking an antihistaminic drug?

Select one:

a. Respiratory
depression

b. Paradoxical
stimulation

c. Extreme
hypotension

d. Insomnia

Question 44

In the context of the FDA Pregnancy Categories for drugs, identify
the proper category for a drug for which studies on animals have not
demonstrated fetal risk and no studies have been performed in pregnant women.

Select one:

a. Pregnancy Category
A

b. Pregnancy Category
B

c. Pregnancy Category
D

d. None of the above

Question 45

Which of the following drugs is rarely prescribed because of
the high incidence of adverse effects?

Select one:

a. Valproic acid

b. Lamotrigine

c. Diazepam

d. Trimethadione

Question 46

The formation of _____ practically guarantees the clotting
cascade to proceed.

Select one:

a. clotting factor
VIII

b. vitamin K

c. Stuart factor

d.
thromboplastin

Question 47

Which of the following medications is used for its sedative
effects in the treatment of hallucinogenic drug intoxication?

Select one:

a. Opioids

b.
Benzodiazepines

c. Amphetamines

d. Antidepressants

Question 48

Competitive antagonism occurs when:

Select one:

a. two agonists
compete for the same receptor.

b. an agonist and an
antagonist compete for the same receptor.

c. an antagonist
directly inactivates an agonist.

d. an antagonist
cancels out the effect of an agonist by binding to a unique receptor.

Question 49

Explain the mechanism of action of emollients that are used
as laxatives.

Select one:

a. They work by
releasing carbon dioxide gas that pushes against the rectum wall and induces
muscle contraction and stool movement.

b. They soak up water
and soften the stool, which results in a swelling action that distends the
rectum and initiates defecation.

c. They consist of a
mixture of sodium and magnesium salts that attract water, which results in the
formation of a more liquid stool.

d. They penetrate the
fecal mass and ease the passage of the stool through the rectum due to their
oily nature.

Question 50

Which of the following statements is true of anemia?

Select one:

a. All forms of
anemia are inherited.

b. Inherited anemias
can be successfully treated or cured with drug replacement therapy.

c. Anemia is
typically caused by an abnormal increase in the number of circulating red blood
cells.

d. The characteristic
symptoms of anemia include weakness, fatigue, irritability, and pallor.