NKU MSN610 All Modules Quizzes Latest 2019 November

MSN610 Diagnostic Reasoning and Advanced Physical Assessment

Module 2 Quiz

Question 1Which of the following is NOT considered a lesion classification?

A. Dermatitis

B. Papulosquamous

C. Pruritis

D. Vesiculobullous

Question 2Inspection of the eye using an ophthalmoscope should include documentation which of the following?

A. Red Reflux

B. Optic Disc

C. Physiological Cup

D. Retinal Vessels

E. All of the Above

Question 3Which of the following is  FALSE?

A. Position of the ear canal for children under age 3 consists of pulling the ear downward, outward and backward.

B. Presbycusis is a common cause of hearing loss in geriatric patients.

C. Crying can make the ear canal and tympanic membrane red.

D. Maternal Diabetes is not associated with increased congenital hearing loss of the newborn.

Question 4Assessment of the nose consists of all the following EXCEPT:

A. Inspect the nose for symmetry and lesions,

B. Inspect the nasal canal for discharge, drainage and  patency.

C. Palpation of the nose and sinuses

D. Percussion of the sinuses.

E. These are all TRUE.

Question 5Assessment of the mouth and throat consists of all the following EXCEPT:

A. Inspect the tongue, gums, teeth and mouth for symmetry, color, edema, lesions and dentition.

B. Evaluate the uvula to move laterally with the patient saying “ah”

C. Evaluate the tonsils

D. Palpate the pre-auricular, post-auricular occipital , tonsilar and submandibular lymph nodes

 

MSN610 Diagnostic Reasoning and Advanced Physical Assessment

Module 3 Quiz

Question 1. Which of the following are barriers to an accurate mental status assessment?

A. Moralizing

B. Interrupting

C. Failure to provide privacy

D. Rushed Schedule

E. All of the Above

Question 2Which of the following acronyms are used to assess depression?

A. SIGECAPS

B. DIGFAST

C. CAGE

D. SAFE

Question 3The Mini Mental Status Exam …..

A. is used to assess dementia

B. evaluates cognitive function

C. takes about 10 minutes to administer

D. requires the patient to duplicate a drawing

E. All of the Above

 

Question 4Assessment of suicide risk include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Family History of Suicide

B. Acute or Chronic Depression

C. Maximizing their credit cards

D. Personal losses or separations

Question 5Which of the following immunizations should adults 19 years and older have had?

A. T dap then Td every 10 years

B. MMR

C. Hepatitis A & B

D. Pneumococcal conjugate

E. All of the Above

 

MSN610 Diagnostic Reasoning and Advanced Physical Assessment

Module 4 Quiz

Question 1 Which of the following are factors to be assessed related to a cough?

A. Pitch

B. Frequency

C. Sputum production

D. All of the Above

Question 2 Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.  Kussmal breathing pattern is rapid, short, deep inspirations

B.  Ceyne-Stokes breathing pattern is rapid gasping with pauses in between episodes

C. Hyperpnea is regular rate and pattern

D. Biot’s breathing is rapid increases & decreases in respiration with periods of apnea

Question 3 Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Chest pain due to gastrointestinal causes is described as substernal burning, worse with lying flat.

B. Chest pain due to musculoskeletal etiology is described as aching, pinching, and can usually be definitely localized

C. Chest Pain associated with pleural etiology is sharp and worsens with deep inspiration.

D. Chest pain associated with cardiac etiology is diffuse, worse with rest, and usually non-radiating.

Question 4 Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Normal heart sounds include S1S2

B. S3 can be an early sign of heart failure

C. A pericardial friction may be heard which the patient holds their brath

D. All of these are true.

Question 5 Severe +4 pitting edema consists of:

A. 2 mm depth of indentation that disappears rapidlyy

B. 6 mm depth of indentation and disappears in 1-2 min

C. > 8 mm depth of indentation and disappears in 2-5 min

D. 4 mm depth of indentation and disappears in 10-15 sec

 

MSN610 Diagnostic Reasoning and Advanced Physical Assessment

Module 5 Quiz

Question 1 Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Percussion of the abdomen consists of the patient repeating the words “99”

B. Percussion of the abdomen can identify solid organs from hollow organs.

C. Acid breath is indicative of hepatic failure

D. Bruits are vascular sounds indicating increased circulation between the portal and venous systems

Question 2 Which of the following is FALSE?

A. The obturator test is evaluating for ruptured appendix or pelvic infection by having the patient perform a straight leg raise.

B. Murphy’s sign is an inspiratory arrest upon palpation of the abdomen

C. McBurney’s sign is tenderness and rigidity from the umbilicus to the R anterior superior iliac spine.

D. Palpation for abdominal aortic aneursym is performed in the epigastric area above the umbilicus.

Question 3 Signs and Symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) include:

A. previously toilet-trained children who start to wet their clothes

B. Increased mental confusion in the elderly

C. Being seen in sexually active adolescents

D. All of the Above

Question 4 Normal physical findings in a female pelvic exam include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Hair distribution on the mons pubis

B. Bartholin glands along the walls of the vaginal orifice

C. Chadwick’s sign

D. Urethral and vaginal orifices found within the vestibule

Question 5 Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. When palpating the epididymis, it is located on the anterior surface of the testes.

B. Palpation for an inguinal hernia involves inserting a gloved finger into the lower scrotum along the vas deferens into the inguinal canal.

C. Testicular torsion consists of the vas deferens, spermatic artery and pampiniform plexus being twisted together.

D. A DRE should consist of inserting a lubricated gloved finger into the anal canal towards the umbilicus, to find the firm, rubbery, smooth prostate which should be a size of a walnut.

 

MSN610 Diagnostic Reasoning and Advanced Physical Assessment

Module 6 Quiz

Question 1 Chief Complaints associated with endocrine disorders include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Exophthalmos

B. Temperature Intolerance

C. Joint Pains

D. Chronic Fatigue

Question 2 The “5 P’s” of performing a musculoskeletal exam include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Pruritus

B. Paralysis

C. Paresthesia

D. Pallor

E. Pain

Question 3 Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

A. The Apprehension test is used to assess the shoulder and arms.

B. The Anterior drawer test is used to assess the elbow function.

C. The Laxity test assesses the stability of the scapula and the humeral head.

D. The Phalen’s test assess for carpet tunnel syndrome.

Question 4 Assessment of neurological functioning includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Mental Status

B. Cranial Nerves

C. Motor Function

D. Reflexes

E. Fremitus

Question 5 Which of the following is TRUE?

A. Cranial Nerves II, III, IV, V, VI, IX and X can all be accomplished with the complete exam of the HEET.

B. Cranial Nerve XI assesses the tongue

C. Cranial Nerve X assesses the Sternocleidomastoid muscles.

D. Cranial Nerve VIII assesses spinal muscles.