KAPLAN MN568 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest 2018 March Question # 00599218 Course Code : MN568 Subject: Health Care Due on: 03/09/2019 Posted On: 03/09/2019 06:19 AM Tutorials: 1 Rating: 4.8/5

MN568 Primary
Care Across the Span

Unit 10 Final Exam

Question 1

Which
statement about confusion is true?

Question
options:

a)

Confusion is
a disease process.

b)

Confusion is
always temporary.

c)

Age is a
reliable predictor of confusion.

d)

Polypharmacy
is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.

Question 2

Sondra’s
peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the
following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

Question
options:

a)

Meclizine

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Diamox

d)

Promethazine

Question 3

The hallmark
of an absence seizure is:

Question
options:

a)

No activity
at all

b)

A blank
stare

c)

Urine is
usually voided involuntarily

d)

The attack
usually lasts several minutes

Question 4

How often
should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the
seizures, and the drug level is adequate?

Question
options:

a)

Every 3
months

b)

Every 6
months

c)

Annually

d)

Whenever there
is a problem

Question 5

Which of the
following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple
sclerosis (MS)?

Question
options:

a)

A teenage
male

b)

A
65-year-old male

c)

A
25-year-old female

d)

A
60-year-old female

Question 6

Which of the
following is a specific test to MS?

Question
options:

a)

Magnetic
resonance imaging (MRI)

b)

Computed
tomography (CT) scan

c)

A lumbar
puncture

d)

There is no
specific test.

Question 7

Which drug
for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of
diagnosis?

Question
options:

a)

Cholinesterase
inhibitors

b)

Anxiolytics

c)

Antidepressants

d)

Atypical
antipsychotics

Question 8

Which
hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the
middle meningeal artery?

Question
options:

a)

Epidural
hematoma

b)

Subdural
hematoma

c)

Subarachnoid
hematoma

d)

Intraparenchymal
hemorrhage

Question 9

Which
cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has
difficulty chewing?

Question
options:

a)

CN V

b)

CN VII

c)

CN IX

d)

CN X

Question 10

Which
statement best describes a carotid bruit?

Question
options:

a)

It is felt
with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.

b)

A bruit
becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.

c)

A
low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.

d)

The higher
the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 11

Which
patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

Question
options:

a)

A female in
her reproductive years

b)

A
40-year-old African American male

c)

A
55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily

d)

A
45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 12

Inattention
and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

Question
options:

a)

Dementia

b)

Alzheimer’s
disease

c)

Parkinson’s
disease

d)

Delirium

Question 13

Which type
of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?

Question
options:

a)

Purulent
meningitis

b)

Chronic
meningitis

c)

Aseptic
meningitis

d)

Herpes
meningitis

Question 14

Which is the
most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?

Question
options:

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

Electroencephalogram
(EEG)

d)

An initial
lumbar puncture

Question 15

What is
usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would
make you suspect herpes zoster?

Question
options:

a)

A stabbing
pain on one small area of the body

b)

A vesicular
skin lesion on one side of the body

c)

A pain that
is worse upon awakening

d)

A lesion on
the exterior ear canal

Question 16

Gabby, aged
22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and
she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

Question
options:

a)

“Most
patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”

b)

“Unfortunately,
you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”

c)

“Don’t
worry, I’ll take care of everything.”

d)

“You may
have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent
damage.”

Question 17

Sam, aged
65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is
necessary. You tell him:

Question
options:

a)

“L-dopa is
neuroprotective.”

b)

“The primary
goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”

c)

“This is the
only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”

d)

“This is the
initial monotherapy drug.”

Question 18

Which of the
following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?

Question
options:

a)

Resting
tremor

b)

Bradykinesia

c)

Rigidity

d)

Postural
instability

Question 19

Which of the
following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?

Question
options:

a)

Light
sensitivity

b)

Pulsatile
pain

c)

Sound
sensitivity

d)

Experiencing
an aura

Question 20

Which of the
following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central
vertigo?

Question
options:

a)

The duration
of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.

b)

There is an
auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated
symptom with central vertigo.

c)

Central
vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.

d)

The onset of
central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.

Question 21

Carotid
endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater
than what percentage of stenosis?

Question
options:

a)

Greater than
25%

b)

Greater than
50%

c)

Greater than
75%

d)

Only for
100% occlusion

Question 22

What
antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?

Question
options:

a)

Aspirin

b)

Ticlopidine

c)

Clopidogrel

d)

Aspirin and
clopidogrel

Question 23

Which
adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with
suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?

Question
options:

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

Cerebrospinal
fluid analysis

d)

EEG

Question 24

Which herbal
preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?

Question
options:

a)

Sam-e

b)

Saint John’s
Wort

c)

Melatonin

d)

Saw Palmetto

Question 25

Which of the
following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?

Question
options:

a)

Asking the
patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube

b)

Determining
if the patient can drive on the highway

c)

Asking the
patient about a news event from the current week

d)

Seeing if
the patient can keep his or her home clean

Question 26

About 90% of
all headaches are?

Question
options:

a)

Tension

b)

Migraine

c)

Cluster

d)

Without
pathological cause

Question 27

Which
statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

Question
options:

a)

Once
diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.

b)

After being
seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

c)

Each state
has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.

d)

These
persons may drive but never alone.

Question 28

Julie has
relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to
interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?

Question options:

a)

Glatiramer
acetate

b)

Natalizumab

c)

Fingolimod

d)

Glucocorticoids

Question 29

The
‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

Question
options:

a)

Parkinson’s
disease

b)

Alzheimer’s
disease

c)

A CVA

d)

Bell’s palsy

Question 30

A
ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive
stretching is known as?

Question
options:

a)

Spinothalamic
dysfunction

b)

Ratcheting

c)

Cogwheeling

d)

Hand tremors

Question 31

Clinical
features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to
explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?

Question
options:

a)

Guillain-Barré
syndrome

b)

Parkinson’s
disease

c)

Alzheimer’s
disease

d)

Huntington’s
disease

Question 32

Which
condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information
along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?

Question
options:

a)

Guillain-Barré
syndrome

b)

Parkinson’s
disease

c)

Alzheimer’s
disease

d)

Delirium

Question 33

A score of
20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:

Question
options:

a)

SLUMS

b)

MoCA

c)

FAST

d)

MMSE

Question 34

Intravenous
thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many
hours of symptom onset?

Question
options:

a)

1 hour

b)

3 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

12 hours

Question 35

When
administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind
of headache?

Question options:

a)

Tension

b)

Migraine

c)

Cluster

d)

Stress

Question 36

The
effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that
which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

Question
options:

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Gamma-aminobutyric
acid (GABA)

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

Question 37

The criteria
for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric
Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th
edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be
present more days than not for at least:

Question
options:

a)

1 month

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

12 months

Question 38

A patient
presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of
sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted
about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and
has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder
but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following
medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?

Question
options:

a)

Pheochromocytoma

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Cardiac
arrhythmias

d)

All of the
above

Question 39

Which of the
following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?

Question
options:

a)

Benzodiazepines

b)

Selective
serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

c)

Tricyclic
antidepressants

d)

Cognitive
behavioral therapy

Question 40

Which of the
following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic
stress disorder (PTSD)?

Question
options:

a)

Hypersomnolence

b)

Blunted
feelings

c)

Loss of
interest in significant activities

d)

Intrusive recurrent
recollections of the event

Question 41

Which of the
following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?

Question
options:

a)

Decrease in
adrenal size

b)

Increased
cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone

c)

An exaggerated
response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone

d)

Increased
inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone

Question 42

The
clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant
(TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of
the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic
antidepressants?

Question
options:

a)

SSRIs are
more effective than TCAs.

b)

SSRIs take
less time to work than TCAs.

c)

SSRIs have a
more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.

d)

SSRIs are
not lethal in overdose.

Question 43

After
discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a
monoamine oxidase inhibitor?

Question
options:

a)

2 weeks

b)

3 weeks

c)

4 weeks

d)

5 weeks

Question 44

It is
important to educate patients with depression and their family members about
reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is
especially true during which time period?

Question
options:

a)

Before the
initiation of treatment

b)

1 to 2 weeks
after the initiation of treatment

c)

When
switching to a different medication

d)

1 to 2 weeks
after tapering off medications

Question 45

A patient is
experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications.
The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to
treating these side effects?

Question
options:

a)

Give the
patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the
medication.

b)

Switch the
patient to a different antipsychotic.

c)

Treat the
patient with anticholinergics.

d)

Treat the
patient with anticonvulsants.

Question 46

According to
Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?

Question
options:

a)

Anger,
denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance

b)

Anger,
denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression

c)

Denial,
anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

d)

Denial,
anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Question 47

The
clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient
stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere
with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that
the clinician should educate this patient about?

Question
options:

a)

Memory
impairment

b)

Sexual
dysfunction

c)

Dry mouth

d)

There are no
long-term consequences of marijuana use.

Question 48

Cocaine acts
as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?

Question
options:

a)

GABA

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

Question 49

What blood
alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?

Question
options:

a)

0.05

b)

0.1

c)

0.2

d)

0.3

Question 50

Rapid eye
movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?

Question
options:

a)

Every 30
minutes

b)

Every 60
minutes

c)

Every 90
minutes

d)

Every 180
minutes

Question 51

Which of the
following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia
nervosa?

Question
options:

a)

Hypercholesterolemia

b)

Hypermagnesmia

c)

Leukocytosis

d)

Decreased
TRH

Question 52

Which of the
following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
Administration?

Question
options:

a)

Sertraline

b)

Fluoxetine

c)

Citoprolam

d)

Imipramine

Question 53

Which of the
following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate
for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

Question
options:

a)

Liver
function

b)

Vision

c)

Growth
parameters

d)

Renal
function

Question 54

It is
important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault
with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of
sexual assault?

Question
options:

a)

Depression

b)

Obsessive-compulsive
disorder

c)

Substance
abuse

d)

PTSD

Question 55

Women are at
the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after
childbirth?

Question
options:

a)

2 weeks

b)

1 month

c)

3 months

d)

6 months

Question 56

Which is the
most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?

Question
options:

a)

Depression

b)

Anxiety

c)

Substance-related
addictions

d)

Gambling

Question 57

What is
recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text
revision)?

Question
options:

a)

Clinical
disorder or focus of clinical attention

b)

Personality
or environmental problems

c)

Environmental
and psychosocial stressors

d)

Global
assessment of functioning

Question 58

Which of the
following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?

Question
options:

a)

CAGE

b)

SANE

c)

SAD PERSONAS

d)

DIGFAST

Question 59

Assessing
for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do
if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following
diagnostic groups?

Question
options:

a)

ADHD

b)

Bipolar

c)

Depression

d)

Anxiety

Question 60

Bipolar
disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?

Question
options:

a)

Substance
abuse and medication effects

b)

Medical and
neurological disorders

c)

Cluster B
personality disorders and depression

d)

Obsessive-compulsive
disorder

Question 61

The use of
benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid
depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.

Question
options:

a) True

b) False

Question 62

Depressive
episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major
depressive disorder.

Question
options:

a) True

b) False

Question 63

Women in
abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers
when they leave the relationship than women who stay.

Question
options:

a) True

b) False

Question 64

Adults must
show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.

Question
options:

a) True

b) False

Question 65

Parkinson’s
disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.

Question
options:

a) True

b) False

Question 66

The best
predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.

Question
options:

a) True

b) False

Question 67

A no-suicide
contract can prevent a suicide attempt.

Question
options:

a) True

b) False

Question 68

Depression
is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of
the severe mental illnesses.

Question
options:

a) True

b) False

Question 69

Clozapine
(Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results
reported to a national registry.

Question
options:

a) True

b) False

Question 70

When
combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can
have significant liver P450-interaction effects.

Question
options:

a) True

b) False

Question 71

A
23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history
includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual
partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be
particularly alert for during her examination?

Question
options:

a)

Human
papillomavirus (HPV)

b)

Endometrial
hyperplasia

c)

Vagismus

d)

Polycystic ovarian
syndrome

Question 72

A
20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have
gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?

Question
options:

a)

Ceftriaxone

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Metronidazole

Question 73

A
24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a
mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for
nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably
been exposed to?

Question
options:

a)

Gonorrhea

b)

HPV

c)

Chlamydia

d)

Trichomonas

Question 74

A
45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge.
The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the
following diagnoses is associated with this finding?

Question
options:

a)

Trichomonas

b)

Bacterial
vaginosis

c)

HPV

d)

Herpes
simplex virus

Question 75

Which of the
following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?

Question
options:

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Diflucan

d)

Doxycycline

Question 76

A
36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and
discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the
clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be
appropriate?

Question
options:

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Estrogen
vaginal cream

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Doxycycline

Question 77

Mandy
presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it
was sexually transmitted and document this as a:

Question
options:

a)

Filiform/digitate
wart

b)

Dysplastic
cervical lesion

c)

Condyloma
acuminata

d)

Koilocytosis

Question 78

During a DRE
on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer.
What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question
options:

a)

An enlarged
rubbery gland

b)

A hard
irregular gland

c)

A tender
gland

d)

A boggy
gland

Question 79

Of the
following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the
superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?

Question
options:

a)

Necrotizing
fasciitis

b)

Periorbital
cellulitis

c)

Erysipelas

d)

“Flesh-eating”
cellulitis

Question 80

The forced
vital capacity is decreased in:

Question
options:

a)

Asthma

b)

Chronic
bronchitis

c)

Emphysema

d)

Restrictive
disease

Question 81

The most
common cause of CAP is?

Question
options:

a)

Streptococcus
pneumoniae

b)

Klebsiella
pneumoniae

c)

Legionella
pneumoniae

d)

Pseudomonas
aeruginosa

Question 82

Which of the
following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?

Question
options:

a)

Asthma

b)

Increased
white blood cells

c)

Insulin
resistance

d)

Hyperactivity

Question 83

The majority
of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated
antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

Question
options:

a)